FYI, it's at least 100 years old. I'd really appreciate whatever information you can provide!

I'm struggling to understand this example because it only references a house in relation to ownership. I asked Claude "So why does this even exist as a rule then? Wouldn't every sentence scenario be "min/mi/mitt noun", to which it said technically yes if you wanted to. Is there something I'm not understanding about when I would place the possessive pronoun after the noun?