Example: "The officer said that that Honda was the vehicle in question."

When said out loud, I find myself barely speaking the first "that", so it ends up sounding like "The officer said th' THAT Honda..." etc. I didn't worry about it until I typed it, where it sure LOOKS grammatically incorrect.

The sentence works (I think) with only one "that"...doesn't it? Can one of you describe what's happening with this example?

1/ I am not understood

2/ i am misunderstood

I was thinking about a line I saw in something the other day, and was curious about whether or not it was proper grammar. For context, the line is spoken by a character who has been investing recent strange phenomena, and when they enter the scene, they find the protagonist whom they have encountered before, but at this point in time, still incorrectly suspect of being the source of it all.

The line in question is "I come here to discover the cause, and I find you again." I'm inclined to say that it should be "I came here", but then again, maybe it's using present tense here rather than past because of the second half of the sentence, "and I find you again." Naturally, "I found you again" wouldn't make sense since that would indicate that they're reffering to a seperate past event, and if you used "come" instead of "came" then it would result in a leap from past to present tense within the same sentence, so maybe the way it's written would be the correct way to handle it after all?

Assuming that the way it's written is correct, I have a follow-up question. For future reference, would similarly written phrases such as the below also be considered grammatically correct?

• "I come here to investigate the disturbance, and I find you again."

• "I come here to investigate the recent incidents, and I find you again."

I read alternating views on whether the word “your” is a pronoun or a possessive adjective.

I'm studying English grammar and I came across verb tenses, and then I came across the five verb forms. They seem to be different things, but they're clearly related, and I can't figure out how.

The five verb forms I found in a YouTube video are:

1. Base form: play, give
2. Base + -s form: plays, gives
3. Past form: played, gave
4. -ing form (present participle): playing, giving
5. Past participle form: played, given

I'll probably work it out on my own, but I wanted to leave the question here. If I find the answer and sort out my thoughts, I may come back and share it.

Can someone please explain

Hi can someone please explain sometimes we use "is" for plural stuff in English

For example i heard of "2 weeks is enough for a vacation"

Then can i say "there is a hundred dollars"

Or i should say "there are a hundred dollars" ?

Thanks...

I think when we speak collective and whole we say "is"

In class right now, so you're getting a live confusion report as a we speak.

THIS IS WHAT'S BEING SHOWN:

Inconsistent: If a student does not understand a problem, they should consult the instructor.

Revised: If a student does not understand a problem, he or she should consult the instructor.

Why is "they" a problem? I asked our teacher about this, literally two seconds ago, but I am still stumped. Anywhos, in primary school, I was taught that "they" was used when referring to those we do not know the gender of, yes? So how is this any different? Can't the students apply their own gendered pronoun themselves, without having to spell it out for them?

Sample sentence: He has been awake for half an hour, lying in bed—trying and failing to brute force his way back to sleep, when he finally decides to get out of bed and go outside.

So, I know this sentence is a bit wonky anyway and I will be changing it, but it works as an example for my question.

So, "lying in bed" is a little interrupted of the greater thought, "He has been awake for half an hour when he finally decides to get out of bed and go outside." That's simple. But, I'm interrupting that interruption with "--trying and failing to brute force his way back to sleep" and I'm not sure if I should close the em dash, close the comma, some third thing I'm not thinking of?

How would YOU write this sentence?

I put the key in the scooter's ignition and turned it.

Lately I've seen otherwise nicely, fully worded comments on Reddit that include one word that has been condensed so much that the first time I saw it, I had to ask what they were saying.

The word is smth. Why in an entire paragraph would someone use this odd term, but no other abbreviated words? Though I don't use them, at least "r" for "are" and "u" for "you" sound like the word they represent.

Just in case you can't parse it out, either, smth means "something". Do you use it, and why?

I'm writing a fiction story in a whimsical style but still want to follow certain grammar rules. One paragraph includes something like this:

Left, right, left, right..."What a mesmerizing sight!" He exclaimed.

I'm unsure whether I should put a space between that ellipsis and the open quotation mark. Feel free to correct any other grammar mistakes I've made. Thank you.

I'm going crazy trying to figure this out using Chicago style's hyphenation rules. Should it be...

• Despite gods knew how many days of travel...

Or...

• Despite gods-knew-how-many days of travel...

Part of me thinks the second because I think "gods knew how many" is an adjectival phrase modifying the noun "days." But it also doesn't look right. I'm at the point where I've gone back and forth on this so much I don't even know what rules are in play here.

So, which is it? Again, using Chicago style—18th edition, specifically.

if its not i might change it to neither.5.nor4 or some other variation

Is my sentence a correct relative clause? And my second is reduced relative clause, are they correct?

"I am someone who lives in Istanbul and is looking for a job."

I am someone living in Istanbul and is looking for a job

High-context sentence, possessive bolded:

“The Atlanta women [referring to multiple women on the Real Housewives of Atlanta] are highly produced but they’re quick in how they argue, and are in a city filled with hustle culture so they have to be ‘on top of it’ in many ways the other franchise’s women [the women on other (city) of Real Housewives shows] don’t and it makes for great television.”

I’m aware the whole sentence is probably not grammatically correct but I don’t know the apostrophe/‘s’ situation on franchise

Hello everyone! Will you check my grammar based on what I wrote below.

Recently, I've been enrolled in English. Am I nervous? Yes! Am I motivated? Also, yes. Hopefully I could go to college one day. Never thought I could be enrolled for college level English. Please pray for me.

Hi,

What type of phrase is "it was almost scary"? It's not an idiom I don't think, but it's also not a literal statement. It has inuendo. I have tried googling to find out, but the AI-based algorhythms are certainly not serving up any intelligent hits, so I decided to try actual intelligence. I just keep getting sites that want to give idioms for scary, and I know that's not what I'm looking for. I'm creating a vocab lesson for advanced TEFL students and I want to get this right. Anyone have any helpful input?

Thanks!

I’ve been editing an academic essay and caught myself second-guessing “whom” repeatedly. I know the traditional rule: use “whom” for object pronouns, “who” for subjects. But I keep seeing native writers skip “whom” entirely in published articles, even in semi-formal texts.

Example 1: Who did you meet? (Traditionally “Whom did you meet?”) Example 2: The author whom I cited changed their argument.

My understanding: “whom” is still grammatically correct as an object, but modern usage makes it sound stiff in most casual writing. Some linguists say it’s slowly disappearing from everyday English. But I’m worried that dropping “whom” in formal papers might look careless to strict readers.

So I’m confused about the practical boundary. Is there a simple rule of thumb? Should I keep “whom” only when it directly follows a preposition, like “to whom”? Or should I avoid it everywhere except very formal contexts?

I’d love to hear your views. Do you still use “whom” in your own writing? Are there cases where skipping it would actually sound wrong, not just informal?